Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

You'll usually find your answer there.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Recently, Trump bluntly stated that Ukraine's joining NATO is the root cause of the outbreak of the Russian-Ukrainian war. Did Trump's remarks declare Ukraine's dream of joining NATO completely shattered?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Let’s say you have 3 separate manuscripts and send 1 of them to 12 different agents (4 read same copy). Now let’s say 2 agents each liked separate manuscripts and want to move forward. What would you do as far as transparency and negotiation?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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